Pathology MCQs for various entrance exams

Welcome to INI-SS-DM Hematopathology recall questions.
This quiz contains recall questions from DM hematopathology INI-SS, entrance exam.
40- General pathology questions with a single option (also useful for histopathology)
40- Hematopathology questions with single option
Answers will appear after every selection.

1. Which of the following involve trinucleotide repeat in the non coding region?

A. Huntington’s disease

B. Fragile X

C. Haw river syndrome

D. X- linked spinal muscular dystrophy

2. Blau’s syndrome is caused by defect in

A. MBL pathway

B. NOD 2

C. Complement pathway

D. Toll like receptors

3. Auto-inflammatory syndrome is caused by defect in

A. NOD like receptor

B. Toll like receptor

C. Fas Ligand

D. RIG like receptor

4. Risk factor for Transitional cell carcinoma bladder?

A. Schistosomiasis

B. Smoking

C. Repeated trauma after curettage

D. Patent urachus

5. FOX P3 mutations seen in all except?

A. Enteropathy

B. Polyendocrinopathy

C. Autoimmunity

D. Polyarteritis nodosa

6. SLE is caused by deficiency of which complement?

A. C3

B. C4

C. C5

D. C6

7. Which of the following statement is true for spinal cord neoplasms?

A. Astrocytoma is the most commonly intramedullary tumour in adults

B. Oligodendroglioma is the most common intramedullary tumour

C. Ependymoma is the most common intramedullary tumour

D. Myxopapillary-Ependymoma arises from the filum terminale

8. Which mutation is not seen in Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome?

A. HLA III mutation

B. JAK 3

C. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

D. RAG mutation

9. Not an AIDS defining malignancy

A. Cutaneous T- cell lymphoma

B. Primary CNS Lymphoma

C. Anal cancer

D. Cervical cancer

10. Not a cause of mononeuritis multiplex complex

A. PAN

B. Cryoglobulinemia

C. Guillian barre syndrome

D. Sjogren syndrome

11. Muscular dystrophy associated with electrical abnormalities of heart are seen in mutation of

A. Caveolin

B. Clathrin

C. Actin

D. Microtubule

12. Defect seen in Kartagener syndrome is

A. Microtubule

B. Microfilament

C. Actin

D. Intermediate filament

13. Heterotopic ossification is seen in?

A. Forrestier disease

B. Myositis ossificans

C. Peyronie disease

D. Dyputerens contracture

14. Disease resulting in Endoplasmic reticulum stress induced cell loss due to protein misfolding

A. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease

B. Cystic fibrosis

C. Familial hypercholesterolemia

D. Tay- sachs disease

15. Plasmodium falciparum

A. Affects immature RBC exclusively

B. RBC size normal

C. Histidine rich protein 2 for diagnosis

D. Schizont is the most common form

16. Most common abnormality in myasthenia gravis

A. Antibodies against Neuromuscular junction

B. Antibodies against Ach-R

C. Antibodies against anti nuclear antibody

D. Antibodies against anti mitochondrial antibody.

17. Not a NK cell marker

A. CD 16

B. CD 56

C. CD 5

D. CD 7

18. Phylectenular conjunctivitis comes under?

A. Type IV hypersensitivity

B. Type I hypersensitivity

C. Type II hypersensitivity

D. Type III hypersensitivity

19. Calorie restriction prolongs ageing by

A. Telomerase reactivation

B. Increasing sirtuins

C. Inhibition of tumor suppressor genes

D. Replicative senescence

20. True regarding repair of stomach

A. Raw area is covered with fibrin

B. Ends repair first

C. Base forms granulation tissue

D. None of the above

21. Annexin V is associated with

A. Multiple endocrine neoplasia

B. Anti phospholipid antibody syndrome

C. Fragile X syndrome

D. Brown sequard syndrome

22. Which is not anti inflammatory

A. IL 10

B. TGF beta

C. Lipoxins

D. IL 17

23. Wrong match among the following is?

A. Anti Hu – Breast cancer

B. Anti Yo- Ovarian tumour

C. Cushing disease- Small cell carcinoma of lung

D. Hypercalcemia- Squamous cell carcinoma

24. Which is not a cell death pathway

A. Necroptosis

B. Necrosis

C. Autophagy

D. Pyroptosis

25. A 3 month infant was well sometime before after a while found to be dead by mother what abnormality will be seen during post-mortem

A. Tetrology of fallot

B. Nothing

C. Hypertrophic obstructive pyloric stenosis

D. Ventricular septal defect

26. Seen in extra vascular Hemolysis

A. Hemoglobinuria

B. Hemosiderinuria

C. Raised indirect bilirubin

D. Reticulocytosis

27. Favorable risk factor in myelodysplastic syndrome is

A. AXL1

B. SF3B1

C. DNMT 2

D. SRF3

28. Wrong statement regarding ROTEM( Rotational thromboelastometry) is?

A. Point of care testing

B. Uses whole blood

C. Cup rotates

D. Pin rotates.

29. A 23-year-old woman nursing her newborn develops a tender red area around the nipple of her left breast. The painful site of the patient's affected breast is primarily due to which of the folliowing mediators

Bradykinin, Histamine and PGE2

IL-1 and TNF – alpha

C3a and C5a

PGF2 and PG D2

30. Which of the following subtypes of Ehlers danlos syndrome ( EDS) is autosomal recessive.?

A. Hypermobility type III

B. Kyphoscoliosis type VI

C. Arthrochlasia type VII

D. Classic type I and type II

31. Which of the following clotting factor effects may result in thrombosis instead of bleeding?

Factor VIII

Factor IX

Factor X

Factor XII

32. Identify the true statement regarding Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNP) and Copy number variation (CNV)

A. CNVs are always biallelic

B. SNPs are almost always biallelic

C. 100% of CNVs and SNPs occur in the gene coding region

D. All are true

33. Which of the following is a risk factor for glioma?

A. Radiation

B. Benzene

C. Smoking

D. Toxoplasma

34. All of the following are involved in thyroid gland development except?

A. PAX8

B. ABCC8

C. NKX 2.1

D. NKX 2.5

35. Which transcription factor is particularly important in the development of kidney?

A. Sonic Hedgehog

B. BDNF-1( Brain derived natriuretic factor-1)

C. GDNF (Glial derived natriuretic factor)

D. TTF-1

36. In which of the following factors Hepatitis C virus differs from HIV virus?

A. RNA virus

B. Therapeutic agents against protease are used

C. HCV does not integrate into the human genome unlike HIV making it curable

D. Drugs are used in combination to overcome resistance.

37. Which of the following drugs can cause fibrin ring granulomas?

A. Chlorpromazine

B. Allopurinol

C. Valproate

D. Aspirin

38. Which of the following is true regarding autoimmune gastritis?

A. Antibodies to H. Pylori are present

B. Can transform to type I carcinoid

C. Gastrin production is markedly decreased

D. Most commonly occurs in the gastric antrum

39. Which of the following is not a histologic feature of ulcerative colitis

A. Presence of pseudopolyps

B. Presence of multiple strictutes

C. Pseudopyloric epithelial metaplasia

D. Inflammation limited to the superficial mucosa and submucosa

40. Which is true regarding the characteristics of type I ovarian tumors?

A) TP53 mutation is common

B) Slow growing and confined to ovary

C) Arises from the tubal epithelium

D) BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations may be present

1. Which of the following indicate an increased risk of CLL (Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia)?

A. IPI (International prognostic index)-8

B. IGHV mutation

C. Lymphocyte doubling time- 18 months

D. TP 53 negative

2. Incorrect about TP 53 testing in CLL (Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia)?

A. Chromosome 17 deletion is most common

B. Before starting therapy

C. As an Indication for therapy

D. In Chemoresistant cases

E. Missense mutation is most common

3. Vitamin K dependent factors are all except

A. Protein C

B. Antithrombin III

C. Factor IX

D. Factor X

4. Hemophilia B correct statement is

A. Haemophilia B is less common compared to A

B. It is autosomal recessive

C. Haemophilia B Leyden worsens during puberty

D. Haemophilia B Leyden associated with androgen responsive element

5. HbA2 increased in?

A. HBE Homozygous

B. Delta beta thalassemia

C. Hb D -punjab

D. Alpha thalassemia trait

6. Point of care testing in INDIA , which of the following?

A. D dimer

B. Factor VIII

C. Activated protein C

D. VWF Multimer assay.

7. Pseudo- gaucher cells are seen in

A. Iron deficiency anemia

B. Megaloblastic anemia

C. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia-II

D. Thalassemia

8. Wrong about Kimura disease

A. Increased IgA levels

B. Head and neck with regional lymphadenopathy

C. Asian males

D. Proteinaceous material in germinal center

9. Which is not performed for inherited thrombophilia in India routinely

A. Protein S

B. Factor V

C. Anti thrombin III

D. Prothrombin G20210A mutation

10. False statement is?

A. T-PLL (T-cell pro lymphocytic lymphoma) is positive for CD 7

B. FISH is better for the detection of TCL-1 when compared to immunohistochemistry.

C. Mc genetic abnormality seen in T-PLL is inv 14

D. Hepatosplenomegaly is common

11. Mast cell leukemias are associated with which of the following gene mutations?

A. KIT D816V

B. PDGFR-a

C. BRAF

D. FGFR

12. True about 5q deletion syndrome is?

A. Classified as 5q if monosomy 7 present

B. TP 53 mutation is associated with good prognosis

C. Classified as 5q deletion If thrombocytopenia is present

D. Presence of SF3B1 mutation does not exclude the diagnosis

13. CAR- T cell therapy true is?

A. Allogenic B- cells are used

B. Most common adverse reaction is cytokine release syndrome (CRS)

C. Erythrocytapheresis is performed to extract the donor cells.

D. Autologous T-cells are never used.

14. False about B- ALL?

A. t(5;14) associated with eosinophilia

B. iAmp 21 cannot be diagnosed with conventional cytogenetics

C. t(17;19) has bad prognosis

D. KMT2A has good prognosis

15. Double hit lymphoma are?

A. Indolent

B. Cyclin D1 positive

C. Associated with mutations in MYC + bcl2/ bcl6

D. Has a favourable outcome

16. True about mastocytosis

A. < 20% bone marrow mast cells

B. Mast cells are round

C. FGFR mutation

D. ≥ 15 mast cells present in aggregates in a bone marrow biopsy.

17. Not a part of new classification of mastocytosis (4th ed revision)

A. Smoldering

B. Diffuse

C. Aggressive

D. Mastocytosis with eosinophilia

18. True about plasma cell neoplasms

A. IgG causes hypercoagulability

B. IgM causes hypercoagulability

C. > 10% bone marrow plasma cells are diagnostic without CRAB

D. None of the above.

19. Which of the following cells show PNH clone?

A. Erythrocytes

B. Lymphocytes

C. Platelets

D. All of the above

20. Which of the following is increased in IDA

A. Transferrin

B. Hepcidin

C, Transferrin saturation

D. Transferrin receptors

21. Calreticulin (CALR) mutations are seen in?

A. Primary myelofibrosis

B. Essential thrombocytosis

C. Polycythemia vera

D All of the above

22. Variant RARA resistant to ATRA

A. PML/RARα

B. NuMA/RARα

C. PLZF/RARα

D. None of the above

23. Best for monitoring TTP treatment

A. ADAMTS 13

B. Platelet count

C. D-Dimer

D. Coombs test

24. Seen in extra vascular Hemolysis

A. Hemoglobinuria

B. Hemosiderinuria

C. Raised indirect bilirubin

D. Reticulocytosis

25. Large platelets are seen in

A. Sebastian syndrome

B. Fechner syndrome

C. ITP

D. All of the above.

26. Langerhan cell histiocytosis true false is

A. BRAF has bad prognosis

B. MAPK mutation is seen

C. Common in Africans

D. CD1a is expressed.

27. False about mycosis fungoides is

A. CD 4 positive

B. CD 8 positive

C. CD 3 positive

D. CD 7 positive

28. Markers frequently seen in BPDCN are all except?

A. CD123

B. CD56

C. CD4

D. CD 25

29. Which is are sCD3 negative except?

A. Agressive NK/ T cell lymphoma

B. Extranodal NK/ T cell lymphoma

C. ATLL

D. s/c panniculitis like T cell Lymphoma

30. Marker of RS cells in Classic- Hodgkin lymphoma?

A. MUM 1

B. J chain

C. 44106

D. BOB 1 (NLP)

31. Favorable risk factor in MDS is

A. AXL1

B. SF3B1

C. DNMT 2

D. SRF3

32. . Marker of follicular helper T- cell are all except?

A. CD 10

B. Bcl -6

C. FOXO P3

D. CXCL- 13

33. Maltese cross inclusion in RBC is most frequently observed in which one of the following?

A. Iron overload.

B. Thalassemias.

C. Babesiosis.

D. Hereditary spherocytosis.

34. Which of the following test is performed in order to detect Weak D antigen routinely?

A. Direct antiglobulin test

B. Indirect antiglobulin test

C. Adsorption-elution

D. Genotyping

35. A 40- year- old woman with fever and epigastric pain of four days’ duration presents to the emergency room. Her hematocrit is 24%, platelet count is 15 × 10 3 / L, LDH is 899 U/ L and peripheral smear shows schistocytes. What is the cause of this disorder?

A. Deiciency of Von Willebrand factor

B. Deiciency of ADAMTS 13

C. Hypertensive crisis

D. Sepsis

36. Which of the following disorders is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?

A. Protein S deiciency

B. Protein C deiciency

C. Antithrombin deiciency

D. Homocystiemia

37. Which of the following could best explain a falsely elevated platelet count enumerated on an impedance-based automated hematology analyzer?

A. Macrothrombocytes.

B. Microclots.

C. Platelet satellitism.

D. Schistocytes.

38. Most common genetic change in splenic marginal zone lymphoma?

A. Deletion 7q

B. NOTCH 2

C. 14 q

D. p53

39. True regarding Nodular lymphocyte predominant hodgkins lymphoma (NLPHL)

A. Neoplastic cells are positive for CD 20

B. Neoplastic cells are positive for CD 30

C. Neoplastic cells are positive for CD 15

D. Neoplastic cells are positive for EBV

40. All of the following CD markers are positive in plasma cell leukemia except?

A. CD 138

B. CD 38

C. CD 79a

D. CD 56

Time is Up!

Time’s up

Comments

3 responses to “INI-SS-DM Hematopathology recall questions.”

K V Vinu Balraam

16 Nov 2021

I’m not able to pay for the PGIMER-DM Hematopathology recall quiz.
After entering the card details, when I click on “Pay Now”, the payment page is not opening. How to access the quiz?

1. pathologymcqs
  
  3 Dec 2021
  
  You can access the quiz for free now!
  
  1. pathologymcqs
    
    4 Dec 2021
    
    Corrected it, kindly checkk again.

INI-SS-DM Hematopathology recall questions.

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